Hi.
sorry to dig that I am but I do have a similiar question and some of the above posts are confusing to me.
I quote:
"From the user guide:
Ensure that Virtual Controller VLAN is not the same as native VLAN of the IAP.
You would only enter those parameters if you want the VC ip to be in a different subnet to the IAP themselves."
I always have my VC along with my IAPs and switches in the same management VLAN and in the same subnet. This VLAN is a default/native/PVID VLAN configured on every port that has IAP connected to it. Thought that this is a correct approach. The outcome is that being associated with a wireless network deployed on the cluster, I can ping my VC in the management VLAN, but I can't access it using HTTPS. Is that proper behavior? I would highly appreciate if someone clarifies that.